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(3662) The prohibition of divorcing a menstruating woman without her consent; If a man breaks this rule, it still counts as a divorce, and he should be ordered to take her back
وحَدَّثَنِي عَلِيُّ بْنُ حُجْرٍ السَّعْدِيُّ، حَدَّثَنَا إِسْمَاعِيلُ بْنُ إِبْرَاهِيمَ، عَنْ أَيُّوبَ، عَنِ ابْنِ سِيرِينَ، قَالَ: مَكَثْتُ عِشْرِينَ سَنَةً يُحَدِّثُنِي مَنْ لَا أَتَّهِمُ أَنَّ ابْنَ عُمَرَ طَلَّقَ امْرَأَتَهُ ثَلَاثًا وَهِيَ حَائِضٌ، فَأُمِرَ أَنْ يُرَاجِعَهَا، فَجَعَلْتُ لَا أَتَّهِمُهُمْ، وَلَا أَعْرِفُ الْحَدِيثَ، حَتَّى لَقِيتُ أَبَا غَلَّابٍ يُونُسَ بْنَ جُبَيْرٍ الْبَاهِلِيَّ، وَكَانَ ذَا ثَبَتٍ، فَحَدَّثَنِي أَنَّهُ سَأَلَ ابْنَ عُمَرَ، فَحَدَّثَهُ «أَنَّهُ طَلَّقَ امْرَأَتَهُ تَطْلِيقَةً وَهِيَ حَائِضٌ، فَأُمِرَ أَنْ يَرْجِعَهَا»، قَالَ: قُلْتُ: أَفَحُسِبَتْ عَلَيْهِ؟ قَالَ: «فَمَهْ، أَوَ إِنْ عَجَزَ، وَاسْتَحْمَقَ
SAHIH HADITH:
Ibn Sirin reported: One who was blameless (as a narrator) narrated to me for twenty years that Ibn 'Umar (Allah be pleased with him) pronounced three divorces to his wife while she was in the state of menses. He was commanded to take her back. I neither blamed them (the narrators) nor recognised the hadith (to be perfectly genuine) until I met Abu Ghallab Yunus b. Jubair al-Bahili and he was very authentic, and he narrated to me that he had asked Ibn 'Umar (Allah be pleased with there) and he narrated it to him that he made one pronouncement of divorce to his wife as she was in the state of menses, but he was commanded to take her back. I said: Was it counted (as one pronouncement)? He said: Why not, was I helpless or foolish?
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